VAT question - B2B services - UK clients - under TVA threshold
I just want to check I have understood this VAT point correctly.
Scenario: a micro-entrepreneur with UK clients who are VAT registered businesses.
As long as the micro-entrepreneur stays under the French TVA threshold, there are no VAT actions for either the micro-entrepreneur or the UK client (apart from the standard invoice wording about no VAT applying).
Once the micro-entrepreneur gets close to the French TVA threshold, they apply for a VAT number. They continue to use the ‘no VAT applies’ wording on invoices.
Once the micro-entrepreneur goes over the French TVA threshold they continue to use the ‘no VAT applies’ wording on invoices, and also add wording about the client needing to take a reverse charge action. The UK client then needs to take the reverse charge action.
Is this correct?
Thank you